"Need be" vs. "Needs to be"
--------------------------------------------------
Rise to the top 3% as a developer or hire one of them at Toptal: https://topt.al/25cXVn
--------------------------------------------------
Music by Eric Matyas
https://www.soundimage.org
Track title: A Thousand Exotic Places Looping v001
--
Chapters
00:00 &Quot;Need Be&Quot; Vs. &Quot;Needs To Be&Quot;
00:37 Accepted Answer Score 11
01:13 Thank you
--
Full question
https://english.stackexchange.com/questi...
--
Content licensed under CC BY-SA
https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/lice...
--
Tags
#wordusage #writingstyle #phraseusage
#avk47
Rise to the top 3% as a developer or hire one of them at Toptal: https://topt.al/25cXVn
--------------------------------------------------
Music by Eric Matyas
https://www.soundimage.org
Track title: A Thousand Exotic Places Looping v001
--
Chapters
00:00 &Quot;Need Be&Quot; Vs. &Quot;Needs To Be&Quot;
00:37 Accepted Answer Score 11
01:13 Thank you
--
Full question
https://english.stackexchange.com/questi...
--
Content licensed under CC BY-SA
https://meta.stackexchange.com/help/lice...
--
Tags
#wordusage #writingstyle #phraseusage
#avk47
ACCEPTED ANSWER
Score 11
Both are fine. Need, like dare, is sometimes called a "semi-modal", in that it can be used like modals (eg can, may) but can also be used as a normal verb (eg like want).
So The balance need be swayed only slightly is parallel to The balance can be swayed only slightly (the meaning is different - this is just showing the syntax); whereas The balance needs to be swayed only slightly is parallel to The balance requires to be swayed only slightly.
I believe that the modal use is becoming less common, and I suspect it is altogether less common in US English than in UK, but I'm not sure about that.