Do "to be" and "to have" work differently from each other with "each"?
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00:00 Do &Quot;To Be&Quot; And &Quot;To Have&Quot; Work Differently From Each Other With &Quot;Each&Quot;?
01:01 Accepted Answer Score 2
01:30 Thank you
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Hire the world's top talent on demand or became one of them at Toptal: https://topt.al/25cXVn
and get $2,000 discount on your first invoice
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Music by Eric Matyas
https://www.soundimage.org
Track title: Puzzle Game 5
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Chapters
00:00 Do &Quot;To Be&Quot; And &Quot;To Have&Quot; Work Differently From Each Other With &Quot;Each&Quot;?
01:01 Accepted Answer Score 2
01:30 Thank you
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ACCEPTED ANSWER
Score 2
Janus Bahs Jacquet answered this perfectly in a comment but didn't respond to my request to re-post the comment as an answer, so I'm re-posting it here as a CW answer.
When used adverbially like this, each means ‘per [noun]’, which makes sense with have (distributive possession), but not with be (distributive being?). You can see this even more clearly if you move it to the end of the sentence: “The kids have three apples each” vs. “*The kids are boys each”.